"And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer:"
The Greek word is pascha, which means passover.
So my belief has been, and is, that the last supper was a passover meal. If there are details which seem to confuse the issue, they are confusing only because of human misunderstanding of the text.
Doesn't it supersede the passover? The first cup - verse 17 - is the highest note of the passover: then the Lord Jesus moves on to the supper, the bread and the cup in verses 19 and 20.
ReplyDeleteYes, I think it does. That is, the communion which we now celebrate supersedes the passover. But the meal which Jesus shared with his disciples was a passover meal. I have heard it taught otherwise on occasion.
ReplyDeleteBlessings, and thanks for the visit!